Do you think there are significant differences between the associations the word “feminine” conjures for the average American today and the associations it conjured when Friedan wrote The Feminine Mystique? If so, what are they, and do they significantly impact the book’s relevance?

If you found Friedan’s arguments persuasive to any extent, did you find her citations of experts or her anecdotal evidence to be more effective? Why?

Throughout the book, Friedan insists that women are no different from men in their psychological needs. Do you think that there are any fundamental differences between men and women’s psychology, or do you think that most perceived differences between men and women reflect gendered socialization? Moreover, how does the increasing visibility of non-binary people in contemporary society influence your thoughts on this question, if at all?